The answer is correct but I’m not quite sure if I understand this solution. I think it’s along the right lines though. It looks you’re taking a limit as n \to \infty getting a result in terms of n?
Yeah, I was trying to say that in the limit - the cumulative distribution function of the Poisson R.V would tend to the cumulative distribution function of the Normal R.V with parameters n and n. I can see that how I’ve written may be confusing though - what would be the correct notation to express this?
where \xrightarrow D means distributional convergence, (this means the limit of the cumulative distribution function of the RV on the LHS as n \to \infty is the N(0,1) cumulative distribution function) with \displaystyle S_n = \frac 1 n \sum_{i = 1}^n X_i, \mu = \mathrm E[X], \sigma = \sqrt {\mathrm {var}(X)}.
What could X be in this instance?
[I realised I reused notation confusingly in this, the $X_n$ s here should not be the same as in the question…]
You don’t learn it “properly” in FS1 - mainly because you’re given no notion of “convergence” of sequences of random variables. You might meet these in a first or second year probability theory module, but you’ll probably only see the Central Limit Theorem proved from scratch in the third year. (at Warwick this happens in ST318 Probability Theory)
Basically you learn that for large n, the sample mean S_n approximates \displaystyle N \left(\mu, \frac {\sigma^2} n\right), whatever the distribution of X, then you plug that into a calculator to find some probability. That’s about as far as A-level goes. Since “approximates” is vacuous without at least quantifying the error, this isn’t really a proper statement of CLT.
To be fair - you might see a sketch proof in the first year, but that proof will assume Levy’s continuity theorem, intuitively obvious but the proof is very non-trivial. Hence I say “from scratch”.
It is frustrating when things are put off like this but luckily once you get to university it’s not done too often.